Notebook

1.  The strongest group,which consists of those who are preparing for over a period of 6 months to years and years:   Most of the candidates, who secure job are  in this category. Continuous practice make them superior to the other groups.
2.  Those who are still in the competition field, but more concentrate in study only at the time of exams.they can easily come to the front, by a month's hard work.
3. freshers and those who have very less preparation comes under the third category. They can also be positioned in the front rows, with a planned study of duration 3 to 6 months.

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 163/2016
Tradesman (Turning) - Technical Education (Idukki)
Date of Test: 02.12.2016

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 165/2016
Draftsman Gr. II/Town Planning Surveyor Gr. II (SR for SC/ST) - Town & Country Planning
Date of Test: 07.12.2016

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 164/2016
Technical Supervisor - Kerala Artisans Development Corporation Ltd
Date of Test: 06.12.2016

   Dear Aspirants,

Here I would like to suggest you some good books for the LDC preparation. a good book is a must to start preparation.

1. LDC FACT FILE-  Matrubhumi Thozhilvartha

PENNAME	REAL NAME
Vilasini	M K Menon
Asha menon	Sreekumar
Pavanan	P V Narayanan Nair
Nandanar	P C Gopalan
Parappuram	K E Mathayi
Premji	M P Bhattathiripad
E . V	E V Krishnapillai
C . V	C V Ramanpillai
V . T	V T Bhattathiripad
N . V	N V Krishna Warrier
S . K	S K Pottakkadu
Idassery	Idassery Govindan Nair
Thulasivanam	R Ramachandran Nair
O. N . V	O N Velukurup
E. M. S	E M Sankaran Namboothiripadu
M. R. B	M R Bhattathiripad
P	P Kunhiiraman Nair
G	G Sankarakurup
Mali	Mali Madhavan Nair
Thikodiyan	Kunjanandan Nair
Kakanadan	George Varghese
Kovilan	V V Ayyappan
Idamaruk	T C Joseoh
Anand	P Sachidanandan
Akkitham	Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri
Uroob	P C Kuttikrishnan
Sumangala	Leela Namboothiripad
Vyloppillii	Sreedhara Menon
Cherukad	C Govindapisharody
N N Kakkad	K Narayanan Namboothiri
Sanjayan	Manikkoth Ramunni Nair

1. GOAL
2. Planning
3. Strategy
4. execution
5. Success !!!!!

Surveying

56. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by
a) increasing the diameter of the tube
b) decreasing the length of bubble
c) increasing the viscosity of liquid
d) decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
Ans: a
57. With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above
Ans: a
58. Refraction correction
a) completely eliminates curvature correction
b) partially eliminates curvature correction
c) adds to the curvature correction
d) has no effect on curvature correction
Ans: b
59. The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and
back sight reading on A is 2.455 m. If the foresight reading on
the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L. of point B
will be
a) 94.80 m
b) 99.71 m
c) 100.29 m
d) 105.20 m
Ans: d
60. As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature
and refraction are respectively
The above table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X
should be
a) 98.70
b) 100.00
c) 102.30
d) 103.30
Ans: b
63. If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the
point of observation is d, then the error due to curvature of
earth is proportional to
a) d
b) 1/d
c) d2
d) 1/d2
Ans: c
64. Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by
a) radius of level tube
b) length of level tube
c) length of bubble of level tube
d) none of the above
Ans: a
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect
?
a) Error due to refraction may not be completely eliminated by
reciprocal levelling.
b) Tilting levels are commonly used for precision work.
c) The last reading of levelling is always a foresight.
d) All of the above statements are incorrect.
Ans: d
66. Dumpy level is most suitable when
a) the instrument is to be shifted frequently
b) fly levelling is being done over long distance
c) many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the
instrument
d) all of the above
Ans: c
67. The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be
determined. For best results, the instrument station should be
a) equidistant from A and B
b) closer to the higher station
c) closer to the lower station
d) as far as possible from the line AB
Ans: a
68. Contour interval is
a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b) directly proportional to the flatness of ground
c) larger for accurate works
d) larger if the time available is more
Ans: a
69. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground
and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal is known
as
a) contour line
b) horizontal equivalent
c) contour interval
d) contour gradient
Ans: d
70. The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000
is
a) 2 m
b) 5m
c) 10 m
d) 20 m
Ans: a
71. Select the correct statement.
a) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve.
b) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower
value con¬tour lies towards the higher value contour.
c) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other
except in case of an overhanging cliff.
d) All of the above statements are correct.
Ans: c
72. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
a) steep slope
b) gentle slope
c) uniform slope
d) plane surface
Ans: a
73. Direct method of contouring is
a) a quick method
b) adopted for large surveys only
c) most accurate method
d) suitable for hilly terrains
Ans: c
74. In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or
identifying points lying on a contour is called
a) ranging
b) centring
c) horizontal control
d) vertical control
Ans: d
75. In the crosssection
method of indirect contouring, the
spacing of crosssections
depends upon
i) contour interval
ii) scale of plan
iii) characteristics of ground
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
76. Which of the following methods of contouring
is most
suitable for a hilly terrain ?
a) direct method
b) square method
c) crosssections
method
d) tacheometric method
Ans: d
77. Select the correct statement.
a) Contour interval on any map is kept constant.
b) Direct method of contouring is cheap¬er than indirect
method.
c) Intervisibility
of points on a contour map cannot be
ascertained.
d) Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of
contours.
Ans: a
78. Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a
a) depression
b) hillock
c) plain surface
d) none of the above
Ans: b
79. Contour interval is
a) the vertical distance between two consecutive
contours
b) the horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
c) the vertical distance between two points on same contour
d) the horizontal distance between two points on same contour
Ans: a
80. Benchmark is established by
a) hypsometry
b) barometric levelling
c) spirit levelling
d) trigonometrical levelling
Ans: c
81. The type of surveying which requires least office work is
a) tacheomefry
b) trigonometrical levelling
c) plane table surveying
d) theodolite surveying
Ans: c
82. Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for
a) forests
b) urban areas
c) hilly areas
d) plains
Ans: c
83. Detailed plotting is generally done by
a) radiation
b) traversing
c) resection
d) all of the above
Ans: a
84. Three point problem can be solved by
a) Tracing paper method
b) Bessels method
c) Lehman’s method
d) all of the above
Ans: d
85. The size of a plane table is
a) 750 mm x 900 mm
b) 600 mm x 750 mm
c) 450 mm x 600 mm
d) 300 mm x 450 mm
Ans: b
86. The process of determining the locations of the instrument
station by drawing re sectors from the locations of the known
stations is called
a) radiation
b) intersection
c) resection
d) traversing
Ans: c
87. The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table
survey is
a) spirit level
b) alidade
c) plumbing fork
d) trough compass
Ans: c
88. Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is
used to locate the position of an inaccessible point ?
a) radiation
b) intersection
c) traversing
d) resection
Ans: b
89. The two point problem and three point problem are
methods of
a) resection
b) orientation
c) traversing
d) resection and orientation
Ans: d
90. The resection by two point problem as compared to three
point problem
a) gives more accurate problem
b) takes less time
c) requires more labour
d) none of the above
Ans: c
91. The methods used for locating the plane table stations are
i) radiation
ii) traversing
iii) intersection
iv) resection
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iii)
Ans: c
92. After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main
operations which are needed at each plane table station are
i) levelling
ii) orientation
iii) centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
a) (i), (ii),.(iii)
b) (i), (iii), (ii)
c) (iii), (i), (ii)
d) (ii), (Hi), (i)
Ans: b
93. Bowditch rule is applied to
a) an open traverse for graphical adjustment
b) a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
c) determine the effect of local attraction
d) none of the above
Ans: b
94. If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more
than the sum of the south latitudes and also the sum of west
departures is more than the sum of the east departures, the
bearing of the closing line is in the
a) NE quadrant
b) SE quadrant
c) NW quadrant
d) SW quadrant
Ans: b
95. If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is
100 m, then the latitude and departure respectively of the line
AB will be
a) +50 m, +86.6 m
b) +86.6 m, 50
m
c) +50m, 86.6
m
d) +70.7 m,50
m
Ans: b
96. The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line
and the forward line of a traverse is called
a) deflection angle
b) included angle
c) direct angle
d) none of the above
Ans: a
97. Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a
traverse is used where
a) linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal
accuracy
b) angular measurements are more accurate than linear
measurements
c) linear measurements are more accurate than angular
measurements
d) all of the above
Ans: b
98. Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is
suitable for locating the details which are far away from transit
stations ?
a) measuring angle and distance from one transit station
b) measuring angles to the point from at least two stations
c) measuring angle at one station and distance from other
d) measuring distance from two points on traverse line
Ans: b
99. Subtense bar is an instrument used for
a) levelling
b) measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
c) measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
d) measurement of angles
Ans: c
100. Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric
observations
a) require slope correction
b) require tension correction
c) require slope and tension corrections
d) do not require slope and tension corrections
Ans: d
101. The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm
is
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Ans: c
102. If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed
as 0.75 m
from a tacheometer, the horizontal distance between
tacheometer and staff station is
a) 7.5 m
b) 25 m
c) 50
d) 75 m
Ans: d
103. For a tacheometer the additive and multiplying
constants
are respectively
a) 0 and 100
b) 100 and 0
c) 0 and 0
d) 100 and 100
Ans: a
104. If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the
distance from object glass to the trunnion axis is 15 cm, the
additive constant is
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 1.33
Ans: b
105. Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using
a) compound curve
b) vertical curve
c) reverse curve
d) transition curve
Ans: d
106. Different grades are joined together by a
a) compound curve
b) transition curve
c) reverse curve
d) vertical curve
Ans: d

here I am providing a set of objective questions in Basic Civil Engineering, which may be useful for the exam,' Lecturer in polytechnics- Electrical'

Civil Engineering Objective type questions
1.The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
a) dummy b) event
c) activity d)constant
2. The final technical authority of a project is
a) Assistant Engineer b) Executive Engineer
c) Superintending Engineer d) Chief Engineer
3. Time and progress chart of a construction is also known as
a) Bar chart b) Gantt chart
c) Modified milestone chart d)any of the above
4. An invar tape is made of an alloy of
a) Copper and steel b) Brass and nickel
c) Brass and steel d)Nickel and steel
5. The drop manholes are generally provided in sewers for
a) industrial areas b) large townships
c) hilly townships d)cities in plains
6. The first stage of natural process of sludge digestion is
a) acid fermentation b) acid regression
c) alkaline fermentation d)none of these
7. Trickling filters are used to remove
a) suspended solids b) colloidal solids
c) organic matter d)pathogenic bacteria
8. The danger for workers descending into a deep sewer is due to
a) deficiency of oxygen b) toxic gases
c) inflammable gases d)any of these
9. What is the detention time for the domestic septic tank?
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours
c) 28 hours d)2 hours
10. Oxygen sag curve relates to
a) aeration b) deoxygenation
c) reparation and deoxygenation d)none of these
11. The detention period for plain sedimentation tank is usually
a) 4 to 8 hours b) 8 to 12 hours
c) 16 to 24 hours d)24 to 36 hours
12. Maximum permissible colour for domestic supplies based on cobalt scale is
a) 5 ppm b) 20 ppm
c) 10 ppm d)25 ppm
13. One degree of hardness of water means a content of salts of
a) 10.25 mg/litre b) 12.25 mg/litre
c) 14.25 mg/litre d)16.25 mg/ litre
14. The fluoride limitation for drinking water is
a) 1.50 mg/litre b) 15.0 mg/litre
c) 20.0 mg/litre d)16.25 mg/ litre
15. Rate of filtration in slow sand filter is
a) 100 lit/m2/hour b) 100 lit/m2/minute
c) 100 lit/m2/day d)5000 lit/m2/hour
16. Low turbidity of water is detected by
a) turbidity tube b) Jackson turbidimeter
c) baylis turbidimeter d)hellipe turbidimeter
17. Iron and manganese can be removed from water by
a) aeration of water b) dechlorination of water
c) boiling of water d)filteration of water
18. What is the pH value for neutral water?
a) 1 b) 7
c) 10 d)14
19. The normal average annual rainfall over the whole of India is estimated as
a) 88 cm b) 119cm
c) 217 cm d)290 cm
20. Chose the non-rigid dam in the following:
a) coffer dam b) rockfill dam
c) arch dam d)buttress dam
21. The most efficient channel section is
a) semicircular b) rectangular
c) triangular d)half hexagon in the form of trapezoid
22. An earthen embankment built on each side of a river, some distance away from
its banks, to control flood is called
a) dyke b) earthen dam
c) Groyne d)spur
23. The best instrument for measuring the velocity of a stream flow is
a) pitot tube b) price’s current meter
c) surface float d)subsurface float
24. Mat is a shallow foundation supporting
a) only one column b) number of columns in one row
c) number of columns in more than one row d)piles
25. The maximum differential settlement in case of foundation on clayey soils is
restricted to
a) 10 mm b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm d)40 mm
26. Sheet pile walls are used as
a) uplift preventing devices b) retaining walls for water front construction
c) load bearing foundations d)seepage preventing devices
27. The weight per unit volume of a sample of soil mass is called
a) dry density b) specific gravity
c) bulk density d)unsaturated density
28. Permeability of granular soil varies
a) inversely as grain size b) as grain size
c) as square of grain size d)inversely as square of grain size
29. Failure of the stability of slopes generally occurs along
a) a vertical surface b) a horizontal surface
c) a curved surface d)all the surfaces
30. The angle of internal friction of round-grained dense sand is about
a) 5o to 25o b) 25o to 30o
c) 30o to 35o d) 32o to 37o
31. Two steel parts at right angles are weided with fillet weld of 10 mm size. The
throat thickness of the fillet weld should be
a) 7mm b) 10mm
c) 12mm d)5mm
32. The effective height of bearing stiffeners is
a) more than d b) less than d
c) 0.7 d d)2d
33. The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be
a) 3mm b) 5mm
c) 6mm d)9mm
34. As per IS-800-1974, the maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in bolted joints of
tension members is about
a) 12 times thickness of plate b) 12 times diameter of the bolt
c) 16 times thickness of plate d)16 times diameter of the bolt
35. In a prestressed member, it is advisable to use
a) low strength concrete only b) high strength concrete only
c) low strength concrete but high tensile strength d)high strength concrete and
high tensile strength
36. Partial safety factors used for steel and concrete in limit state design are
a) 1.5 and 1.5 b) 1.0 and 1.5
c) 1.15 and 1.5 d)1.0 and 1.0
37. A retaining wall retaining a surcharge, if overall height of the wall is H, then the
width of the base slab would be
a) 0.70 H b) 0.55 H
c) 0.50 H d)0.40 H
38. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is
a) 2/3 b) 3/2
c) 3/4 d)4/3
39. The thickness of the flange of a tee beam of a ribbed slab is generally assumed
as
a) depth of the rib b) width of the rib
c) thickness of the concrete topping d)half the thickness of the rib
40. Design of R.C.C cantilever beams is based on the resultant force at
a) fixed end b) free end
c) mid-span d)mid-span and fixed support
41. Diameter of main bars in R.C.C columns shall not be less than
a) 6mm b) 8mm
c) 10mm d)12mm
42. What is the modulus of elasticity of concrete mix M 25?
a) 2500 N/mm2 b) 5700 N/mm2
c) 15,000 N/mm2 d)28,500 n/mm2
43. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections, that too without vibration, the
compaction factor for concrete should be
a) 0.75 – 0.80 b) 0.80 – 0.85
c) 0.85 – 0.92 d)above 0.92
44. If the thickness is small in comparison with length and width, such structural
members are called as
a) one dimensional b) two dimensional
c) three dimensional d)none of these
45. Number of unknown internal forces in each member of a rigid jointed plane
frame is
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d)6
46. In case of eccentricity loaded struts, the section preferred is
a) solid b) hollow
c) tapering d)composite
47. Points of contraflexure are the points where
a) beam is supported b) bending moment is zero
c) shear force is zero d)bending moment changes sign
48. Geologically marble is known as
a) sedimentary rock b) igneous rock
c) metamorphic rock d)stratified rock
49. For 1 m3 of brick masonry, number of bricks is
a) 400 b) 450
c) 500 d)550
50. The standard size of brick as per IS standard is
a) 20 X 10 X 10 cm b) 23 X 12 X 8 cm
c) 19 X 9 X 9 cm d)18 X 9 X 9 cm
51.The units of flexural stiffness are
(a) Radians per unit rotation
(b) Moment per unit rotation
(c) Force per unit deflection and rotation
(d) Extension per unit force
52. The torsional stiffness of a member can be defined as
(a) Torque for unit moment
(b) Torque for unit twist
(c) Moment for unit twist
(d) Torsion for unit twist
53.The stiffness method in structural analysis is known as
(a) Unit load method
(b) Consistent deformation method
(c) Force method
(d) Displacement method
54. The flexibility of an element can be defined as
(a) Flexural moment per unit rotation
(b) Rotation for unit moment
(c) Flexibility for unit translation
(d) none
55. The flexibility method in structural analysis starts with
(a) Compatible deformations
(b) Equilibrium of forces
(c) Force deformation relation
(d) Displacement of joints
56. Number of compatibility conditions needed in the analysis of statically determinate structure
are
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
57. Compatibility conditions are primarily governed by
(a) Strains (b) Stresses (c) Temperature (d) Forces
58. Shape factor for circular section is
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d)2.5
59. Space trusses fall under approximation
(a) continuum (b) Framed (c) Discrete (d) Disjointed
60.The carryover factor in a prismatic member whose far end is hinged is
(a) 0 (b) ½ (c) ¾ (d) 1
61.The moment distribution in structural analysis is treated as
(a) a displacement method
(b) a force method
(c) a flexibility method
(d) none of these
62. Plastic analysis of the structures is used in
(a) Working stress design
(b) Ulitimate strength design
(c) Limit state design
(d) none of these
63. The bending moment about the hinge support must be
(a) less than zero (b) equal to zero
(c) greater than zero (c) Approximately zero
64.Minimum number of equilibrium equations required for a plane frames analysis of structure is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c)5 (d)6
65. Minimum number of equilibrium equations required for a space frames analysis of structure
is
(a) 3 (b)6 (c)8 (d) 9
66.The measurement of all the work and supplies are recorded in the
(a) Schedule of the rate (b)M-book
(c)Road metal rate book (d) None of these
67. Earnest money deposit is generally
(a) 3% (b)5% (c)2% (d) 6%
68.Detailed measurements are certified by
(a)Asistant Engineer (b)Junior Engineer
(c)S.D.O (d) None of them
69. Unit of Modulus of section
(a) Kg-m3 (b)m3 (c)m4 (d)m2
70. Soil which contains finest grain particles
(a) coarse sand (b)Fine sand (c)silt (d) clay
71.The equation τ = C + σ tan Φ is given by
(a) Rankine (b)Coulomb (c)Culmann (d) Mohr
72. When the water table is close to the ground surface , the bearing capacity of a soil is reduced
to
(a) 1/4 (b)1/2 (c)1/3 (d) ¼
73. Pile foundation is provided to
(a) Carry loads (b)Resist horizontal and uplift force
(c)Compact a loose cohesion less deposit (d) all of these
74. The efficiency of the pile group depends on
(a) soil type (b)method of pile installation (c)pile spacing (d) all of these
75. Garbage is a
(a) Dry waste (b)Semi liquid waste (c)liquid waste (d) None of these
76.Biological action is used in
(a) Screens (b)Sedimentation tanks
(c)Activated sludge treatment (d) all of these
77. The sewage is treated by aerobic action in
(a) settling tank (b)Trickling filter
(c)oxidation pond (d) all of these
78.The settling velocity , in a sewage settling tank increases due to
(a) increases in specific gravity of the solid particles
(b)decreases in the size of solid particles
(c)decrease in temperature of sewage
(d) none of these
79.The solidification of molten magma within the earth crust results in the formation of
(a) Sedimentary rocks (b)Metamorphic rocks
(c) Basalt and traps (d) Granite
80. Which constituent of the cement up on addition of water , sets and hardens first?
(a) Tricalcium silicate (b)Tricalcium aluminate
(c)Di calcium silicate (d) Free lime
81.Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of
(a) alumina (b)iron oxide (c)silica (d) alkalies
82.A good brick when immersed in water bath for hours , should not observe more than
(a)20% of its saturated weight
(b)30% of its dry weight
(c)10% of its saturated weight
(d)15% of its dry weight
83. Plaster of paris can be obtained from the calcinations
(a) lime stone (b) gypsum (c)dolomite (d) bauxite
84.Refractory bricks are specially manufactured to
(a) withstand high temperature (b) with stand high crushing pressure
(c) Have high insulation against sound (d) none of these
85.If the center of the arch lies on the springing line , it is
(a) segmental arch (b) semi-circular arch (c) Bull’s eye arch (d) horse shoe arch
86.As the cement sets and hardens it generates heat which is called
(a) latent heat (b) sensible heat (c) heat of humidity (d) heat of hydration
87.The steel mould for slump test is in the form of a
(a) cube (b) cylinder (c) frustum of a cone (d) none of these
88. The minimum percentage of ingredients in cement is that of
(a) lime (b)aluminum (c) silica (d) magnesium oxide
89.The test conducted by Vicat’s apparatus is for
(a) fineness (b) compression (c) tensile (d) consistency
90. Le chatlier apparatus is used to perform
(a) fineness (b) soundness (c) consistency (d) compressive
91. Minimum pitch value is equal to
(a) 2.5 times the diameter of rivet hole (b) 3.0 times the diameter of rivet hole
(c) 2.0 times the diameter of rivet hole (d) 3.5 times the diameter of rivet hole
92. The slenderness ratio of masonry walls is limited to
(a) 50 (b)40 (c) 20 (d) 10
93. Fully prestressed concrete beam means
(a) no tension is permitted (b) no cracking is permitted
(c) working loads are completely resisted by prestressing force (d) none of these
94. In a moment resisting connection, the moment carrying capacity is provided by
(a) tension in rivets (b) compression in rivets
(c) shear in rivets (d) bearing strength in rivets
95. The amount of precipitation is measured by
(a) rain gauge (b) osmoscope (c) turbidimeter (d) all of these
96. The water shed channel is also called
(a) side slope channel (b)contour channel
(c) ridge channel (d) all of these
97. Gauge is slightly widened on
(a) points (b)Diamond crossing (c) curves (d) Tracks for train
98.A track is elastic mainly because of
(a) rails (b)sleepers (c) ballast (d) formation
99.The best type of ballast is
(a) Granite (b)Sand stone (c) limestone (d) Quartzite
100. The minimum water-cement ratio for obtain workable concrete is
(a) 0.60 (b)0.55 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.40
Answer Key
1. C 39. B 77. C
2. D 40. B 78. A
3. D 41. D 79. D
4. D 42. A 80. B
5. C 43. D 81. D
6. A 44. B 82. A
7. B 45. C 83. B
8. C 46. B 84. A
9. B 47. D 85. B
10.C 48. C 86. D
11.A 49. C 87. C
12.B 50. C 88. B
13.C 51. B 89. D
14.A 52. B 90. A
15.A 53. D 91.A
16.C 54. B 92.C
17.A 55. B 93. C
18.B 56. A 94. D
19.B 57. A 95. A
20.B 58. B 96. C
21.D 59. C 97. C
22.A 60. B 98. C
23.A 61. A 99. A
24.C 62. B 100. D
25. B 63. B
26. B 64. B
27. A 65. A
28.C 66. B
29.C 67. C
30.C 68. A
31.A 69. B
32.C 70. D
33.A 71. B
34.C 72. B
35.D 73. D
36.C 74. D
37.A 75. A
38.D 76. C